Let f: R ->[0,pi/2) be defined by f(x)=tan^(-1)(x^2+x+a)dot Then the set of values of a for which f is onto is (a)(0,oo) (b) [2,1] (c) [1/4,oo] (d) none of these
If tan^-1 (a/x) + tan^-1 (b/x) = pi/2 , then x is equal to :
trigonometry - Since $\tan(25\pi/2)$ is undefined, and $\cot x = \frac{1}{\tan x}$, then why isn't $\cot(25\pi/2)$ undefined instead of $0$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
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Dave Richeson on Twitter: "Euler proved that π/4=arctan(1/2)+arctan(1/3), which can be used for computing digits of π (using the arctangent series). I wondered if I could prove it without using a trig
Answered: Given the determinants of the following… | bartleby
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What is the integral from 1 to infinity of 1/(x^2+25) ?
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